New Torah question
Here is a posting from Arthur: (let me know your thoughts)
Rabbi …. Why in the Torah when it refers to a famine in the land
does it always stress that it was not to be confused with the other
previous famines ….why the need to always distinguish this famine
from the others.
Thanks in advance …not to be confused with my previous thanks to you
for answering the question about why Hashem sent a Malachto undue the
akeydah and didn’t undue it himself.